Updated Apr 21, 2026 Cloud-Deployment-and-Operations Exam Dumps - PDF Questions and Testing Engine [Q40-Q55]

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Updated Apr 21, 2026 Cloud-Deployment-and-Operations  Exam Dumps - PDF Questions and Testing Engine

New (2026) WGU Cloud-Deployment-and-Operations  Exam Dumps

NEW QUESTION # 40
(An administrator needs to implement Amazon Route 53 multivalue routing policy. The operator must ensure that Route 53 will respond to incoming requests with the maximum allowed number of records. How many records should be created?)

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: A

Explanation:
The multivalue routing policy in Amazon Route 53 allows up to 8 healthy records to be returned in response to DNS queries, enabling load balancing across multiple resources. To ensure the maximum allowed number of records is utilized, the administrator should create 8 records. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.1, Route 53 Routing Policies) specifies, "Multivalue answer routing supports up to 8 healthy resource record sets per response, requiring the creation of 8 records to maximize the policy's capability." Options A, C, and D exceed or fall short of this limit.


NEW QUESTION # 41
(An administrator needs to set up self-managed permissions for AWS CloudFormation StackSet operations.
Which two roles should be created in the administrator account and in the target accounts? Choose 2 answers.)

  • A. In the administrator account, create an IAM role named AWSCloudFormationStackSetExecutionRole.
  • B. In the administrator account, create an IAM role named
    AWSCloudFormationStackSetAdministrationRole.
  • C. In each target account, create a service role named AWSCloudFormationStackSetAdministrationRole that trusts the administrator account.
  • D. In each target account, create a service role named AWSCloudFormationStackSetExecutionRole that trusts the administrator account.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
To set up self-managed permissions for CloudFormation StackSet operations, two roles are required: in the administrator account, create an IAM role named AWSCloudFormationStackSetAdministrationRole to manage StackSet operations, and in each target account, create a service role named AWSCloudFormationStackSetExecutionRole that trusts the administrator account to execute the stacks. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.4, StackSets) states, "For self-managed permissions, the administrator account requires the AWSCloudFormationStackSetAdministrationRole, while each target account needs the AWSCloudFormationStackSetExecutionRole with a trust relationship to the administrator account for stack deployment." Roles B and D are incorrectly named or misplaced.


NEW QUESTION # 42
(Which solution should be used to host content to be processed for Amazon Made?)

  • A. S3
  • B. DynamoDB
  • C. DocumentDB
  • D. EC2

Answer: A

Explanation:
Amazon S3 (Simple Storage Service) should be used to host content to be processed for Amazon Made, as it provides scalable object storage ideal for storing and retrieving large amounts of data, such as media files or documents, for processing workflows. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section
2.1, Amazon S3) states, "S3 is the preferred solution for hosting content to be processed by services like Amazon Made, offering durable and highly available storage with support for lifecycle policies and integration with other AWS services." DocumentDB, DynamoDB, and EC2 are not designed for this content hosting purpose.


NEW QUESTION # 43
(A company is using CloudWatch on its EC2 instances. The company needs to determine the number of bytes received by an instance on all network interfaces for proper sizing of the instance. Which metric should the company use?)

  • A. NetworkPacketsOut
  • B. NetworkPacketsIn
  • C. NetworkOut
  • D. NetworkIn

Answer: D

Explanation:
The `NetworkIn` metric in Amazon CloudWatch should be used to determine the number of bytes received by an EC2 instance across all network interfaces, aiding in proper instance sizing based on inbound traffic. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.1, CloudWatch Metrics) states, "The
`NetworkIn` metric measures the total number of bytes received on all network interfaces of an EC2 instance, providing critical data for sizing decisions to handle inbound traffic effectively." NetworkPacketsIn, NetworkOut, and NetworkPacketsOut measure packet counts or outbound data, which are less relevant for this purpose.


NEW QUESTION # 44
(Which AWS solution can send email based on CloudWatch alarms?)

  • A. Simple Notification Service (SNS)
  • B. Kinesis
  • C. Simple Queue Service (SQS)
  • D. Amplify

Answer: A

Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch alarms can trigger notifications when a metric breaches a defined threshold. The AWS solution designed to send emails based on these alarms is Amazon Simple Notification Service (SNS). SNS supports sending notifications via email, SMS, and other protocols when subscribed endpoints are triggered by CloudWatch alarms. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.3, Monitoring and Alarms) states that SNS is the primary service for delivering notifications from CloudWatch, allowing users to configure emailsubscriptions for alarm states. Other options like SQS, Amplify, and Kinesis are not designed for this purpose.


NEW QUESTION # 45
(What is the role of AWS Trusted Advisor?)

  • A. It provides recommendations to help follow AWS best practices.
  • B. It provides a holistic overview of the health of architecture.
  • C. It provides an assessment on unused IAM roles.
  • D. It provides recommendations on patches to be performed on resources.

Answer: A

Explanation:
AWS Trusted Advisor provides recommendations to help follow AWS best practices, analyzing the environment for cost optimization, security, performance, and fault tolerance. It offers actionable insights to improve resource usage. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 6.4, Trusted Advisor) states, "Trusted Advisor evaluates your AWS environment against best practices, providing recommendations in categories like cost optimization and security (e.g., enabling MFA or removing unused resources)." Options A, B, and C overstate or misrepresent its role, as it does not focus solely on unused IAM roles, holistic health overviews, or patch recommendations.


NEW QUESTION # 46
(A company uses SQS and EC2 to convert videos uploaded by users. In the evenings, videos take several hours to convert when they normally take minutes. The user base is expected to grow a hundredfold in the next 12 months. Which solution should be used to reduce the conversion delays?)

  • A. Use spot instances instead of on-demand
  • B. Implement a dead-letter queue
  • C. Configure an alarm to scale the fleet based on queue length
  • D. Switch from t2.medium to t2.xlarge instance type

Answer: C

Explanation:
To reduce conversion delays caused by increased demand, the company should configure a CloudWatch alarm to scale the EC2 fleet based on the SQS queue length. This auto-scaling approach dynamically adjusts the number of EC2 instances to handle the workload, especially during peak evening hours and anticipated growth. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.3, Auto Scaling and SQS) explains, "Auto Scaling can be triggered by a CloudWatch alarm monitoring SQS queue depth, ensuring the EC2 fleet scales out to process video conversion tasks efficiently as the queue length increases." Spot instances, dead-letter queues, and instance type upgrades do not directly address dynamic scaling needs.


NEW QUESTION # 47
(Which AWS monitoring feature is used to process events using AWS Lambda?)

  • A. Metrics
  • B. Rules
  • C. Targets
  • D. Logs

Answer: B

Explanation:
The AWS monitoring feature used to process events with AWS Lambda is CloudWatch Events, specifically through the use of rules. Rules define the events to monitor (e.g., based on event patterns) and specify targets like AWS Lambda functions to process those events. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.3, CloudWatch Events) explains that rules are the core component for event-driven architectures, enabling automation by linking events to Lambda for processing. Metrics, targets, and logs are related but not the primary feature for this function.


NEW QUESTION # 48
(A cloud engineer needs to notify the response team whenever a high-security web server responds with a 403 Forbidden error. Which two steps can enable this functionality? Choose 2 answers.)

  • A. Create an alarm for the metric filter to deliver alerts using Amazon SNS
  • B. Send alarms from the Lambda function using Amazon SQS
  • C. Define a metric filter for Apache logs in CloudWatch
  • D. Bind a Lambda function to an Apache process

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
To notify a response team when a high-security web server returns a 403 Forbidden error, two key steps are required. First, define a metric filter for Apache logs in CloudWatch to detect the 403 error code within the log data. This involves setting up a filter pattern to match "403" in the Apache access logs. Second, create an alarm for the metric filter and configure it to deliver alerts using Amazon SNS, which supports email or other notifications to the response team. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.2, CloudWatch Logs and Alarms) confirms that metric filters and SNS-integrated alarms are the standard approach for monitoring and alerting on log-based events. Options B and D are incorrect as they involve unnecessary or unsupported configurations (e.g., binding Lambda to Apache or using SQS for alarms).


NEW QUESTION # 49
(Which action must be used to create a metric filter in the Amazon CloudWatch console?)

  • A. Select a log group
  • B. Define a trace
  • C. Enable an alarm
  • D. Specify a stream

Answer: A

Explanation:
To create a metric filter in the Amazon CloudWatch console, the first step is to select a log group from which the log data will be analyzed. A log group contains log streams, and metric filters are applied to the log data within these groups to extract metrics based on patterns. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.2, CloudWatch Logs) specifies that the process begins by navigating to the CloudWatch console, selecting a log group, and then defining the filter pattern. Actions like enabling an alarm, defining a trace, or specifying a stream are subsequent or unrelated steps.


NEW QUESTION # 50
(An administrator is unable to make an AMI public. What is the cause?)

  • A. Boot volume is encrypted
  • B. Bookmark is absent
  • C. Paravirtual virtualization is used
  • D. Legacy BIOS boot mode is used

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The inability to make an AMI public is caused by an encrypted boot volume. AWS does not allow AMIs with encrypted EBS snapshots to be shared publicly due to security constraints; sharing is limited to specific AWS accounts. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 6.3, AMI Management) states,
"An AMI cannot be made public if its boot volume is encrypted; encryption restricts sharing to authorized accounts only, requiring decryption keys to be managed separately." Legacy BIOS, paravirtual virtualization, and the absence of a bookmark do not impact AMI sharing.


NEW QUESTION # 51
(An administrator needs to deploy a NAT gateway in an existing VPC subnet. Which two tasks should this administrator perform during deployment? Choose 2 answers.)

  • A. Assign a private IP address to the NAT gateway
  • B. Configure the access control list associated with the subnet
  • C. Configure the route table associated with the subnet
  • D. Assign an elastic IP address to the NAT gateway

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
To deploy a NAT gateway in an existing VPC subnet, the administrator must assign an elastic IP address to the NAT gateway for public internet access and configure the route table associated with the subnet to route traffic through the NAT gateway. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.2, NAT Gateway) states, "Deployment of a NAT gateway requires an elastic IP address for outbound internet connectivity and a route table update to direct private subnet traffic to the NAT gateway (e.g., 0.0.0.0/0 via NAT)." Private IP assignment and ACL configuration are not required steps.


NEW QUESTION # 52
(An administrator plans to deploy a database to AWS that supports the following: multiple Availability Zones, a standby database instance that provides failover support, a database instance that allows only read-only connections. Which two database solutions should the administrator use? Choose 2 answers.)

  • A. Amazon Aurora DB cluster with multi-master replication
  • B. Amazon RDS Multi-AZ DB instance
  • C. Amazon Aurora DB instance with Aurora Replica
  • D. Amazon RDS Multi-AZ DB cluster

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
To meet the requirements, the administrator should use an Amazon RDS Multi-AZ DB instance for multiple Availability Zones and failover support, and an Amazon Aurora DB instance with Aurora Replica for a read- only connection. The RDS Multi-AZ configuration automatically provisions a standby instance in a different AZ for failover, while Aurora Replicas provide read-only instances for scaling read traffic. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 7.1, RDS and Aurora) states, "RDS Multi-AZ deploys a standby instance across AZs for failover, and Aurora Replicas are read-only instances that enhance performance by offloading read traffic from the primary instance." Options A and D are incorrect as multi- master replication and Multi-AZ clusters do not align with the read-only requirement.


NEW QUESTION # 53
(Which CloudWatch metric filter includes log events with the word ERROR but excludes log events with the word WARNING?)

  • A. ERROR WARN
  • B. ?ERROR ?WARN
  • C. ERROR -WARN
  • D. "ERROR" WARN

Answer: C

Explanation:
A metric filter in Amazon CloudWatch Logs can be used to search for specific terms in log data and create metrics based on the matches. To include log events with the word "ERROR" and exclude those with the word "WARNING," the correct syntax involves using a filter pattern with a positive match for "ERROR" and a negation for "WARNING." The correct pattern is "ERROR -WARN," where the minus sign (-) indicates exclusion of log events containing "WARN." According to the WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.2, CloudWatch Logs), metric filters use a pattern-based syntax where terms are included or excluded using positive matches and the negation operator (-). This ensures that only logs with
"ERROR" and without "WARN" are processed into the metric.


NEW QUESTION # 54
(What is the advantage of maximizing the time to live of the cache in CloudFront?)

  • A. Facilitate a high number of requests
  • B. Improve security measures
  • C. Minimize requests to the origin
  • D. Improve a disaster recovery plan

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Maximizing the time to live (TTL) of the cache in Amazon CloudFront reduces the frequency of requests to the origin server by serving content from edge locations for a longer period, lowering latency and costs. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.4, CloudFront Caching) states, "A higher TTL in CloudFront caching minimizes origin requests by keeping objects in edge caches longer, reducing load on the origin server and optimizing performance and cost." Facilitating high request volumes, improving disaster recovery, and enhancing security are not primary benefits of maximizing TTL.


NEW QUESTION # 55
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WGU Cloud-Deployment-and-Operations Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Ensuring Scalability, Elasticity, and Backup Readiness: This section of the exam measures skills of Cloud Operations Specialists and covers implementing AWS features that support scalability, elasticity, and backup readiness. It focuses on enabling cloud systems to handle fluctuating workloads while maintaining continuity and ensuring critical data remains recoverable.
Topic 2
  • Optimizing Cost and Performance Baselines: This section of the exam measures skills of Cloud Operations engineers and covers determining the best balance between cost and performance using AWS services. It involves selecting suitable configurations and resource types to maintain efficient operations while avoiding unnecessary spending.
Topic 3
  • Implementing Cloud Security and Compliance: This section of the exam measures skills of Cloud Engineers and covers the use of AWS security tools to protect data and infrastructure. Candidates must demonstrate awareness of compliance needs and the ability to apply protective controls that align with industry and organizational standards.
Topic 4
  • Cloud Service Deployment and Management: This section of the exam measures skills of Cloud Engineers and covers the technical knowledge required to deploy, manage, and operate cloud services. It focuses on understanding stability, scalability, backup processes, recovery methods, and general deployment practices. Candidates are expected to show they can handle provisioning, monitoring, and connectivity tasks needed to support cloud environments.

 

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